Armorsmith Archive
Thread: PSG vs. AP0 question.
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AvaroT
Thu Mar 11, 2004 12:04 pm
#1
If you wear both a PSG and armor, and you get hit with an AP0 attack, does the 50% reduction apply twice?
My understanding was that the PSG and Armor are applied sequentially. In other words, if 100 points of AP0 damage hits you, a 30% PSG will cut that down to 35 points (50% for AP/AR and then another 30% reduction), and then the remaining 35 points would be applied to the armor. Are just the armor resists then applied, or does the 50% reduction happen again?
JaatoWaals
Thu Mar 11, 2004 12:14 pm
#2
I'm pretty sure that that's the case. Can't remember, I tested it a while back and wrote down that that's the case, so I'm guessing it probably is. Worth testing yourself, though 
Shlo_mo_shun
Thu Mar 11, 2004 12:16 pm
#3
I heard that the 50% reduction happens again, but have not tested this myself.It would only take a second totest out in game.
BigAke
Thu Mar 11, 2004 12:19 pm
#4
assuming that the psg has the correct resist (be aware of the vulnerability-shifting) and the shot does not bypass the armor (the so called armor-hole bug) then the damage will be reduced by 50% because of the light ar of the psg, the rest will be further reduced by the resist of the psg, after that the light ar of the armor kicks in and last but not least the resist of the armor - as long as the attack has no armor piercing.
that means that using psg and armor will give you some kind of medium ar (just note that it isnt true against armor piercing weapons, light ap will cancel both armor ratings - and i even heard that the resist of the shield will also be ignored)
that means that using psg and armor will give you some kind of medium ar (just note that it isnt true against armor piercing weapons, light ap will cancel both armor ratings - and i even heard that the resist of the shield will also be ignored)
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